posted
Say I've got an Audiocontrol EQ/xover (EQX)or even my current HiFonics Callisto EQ/xover. Both these amps have two subwoofer outputs: mono and inverted.
Suppose I ran one JBL 1200.1 off the mono channel and another off the inverted[/i] channel.
[b]Would it be possible to connect both amps to a single voice coil sub?
You know, suppose I connect the "mono" JBL to the speaker's voice coil and then connected the "inverted" JBL to the speaker's voice coil. Wouldn't the (+) fromt the "mono" JBL couple with the (-) from the inverted JBL to create the bridging affect you get from a bridgeable two channel amplifier.
Whatcha think?
------------------ CAR:1997 HONDA Accord EX sedan (5-spd manual transmission) BATTERY:OPTIMA YellowTop HU:JVC KD-LX30 AMP (mid-bass):JBL BP300.1 SUB (mid-bass): 2 Pioneer "Free Air" 8" subs
posted
It depends on the way the amp is designed. The way you describe it is how most stereo amps are wired internally.
But the problem is that each amp channel you are trying to bridge needs to be single ended, meaning one terminal is grounded and the other carries the signal. To bridge them you tie the grounds together, and connect the speaker to the signal carrying lines. Some amps that aren't able to be bridged already have the output connected like this, and you can't connect the grounds together. It is pretty common to design class D amps like this because you can get twice the voltage swing you could with a single ended design.
quote:Originally posted by Mr.Dank: I tried that once. LOL The amps still sitting in the garage.....
I take it you blew the amp(s) in question.
I was throwing this idea out to a dude I work with who knows a little about electronics. His doubt came in the fact that the signal coming from the "inverted" amp could possibly send "juice" into the "mono" amp which could possibly cause some problems.
Printer-friendly view of this topic